Dot Wedge
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PING i -10 RED DOT IRONS SET REG 5 IRON – SAND WEDGE $525.00 |
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PING EYE 2 SAND WEDGE BeCu BERYLLIUM COPPER BLACK DOT $299.00 |
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Ping Eye 2 Pitching Wedge Beryllium Black Dot $200.00 |
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BRAND NEW PING ISI NICKEL BLACK DOT LOB WEDGE LW $199.99 |
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Ping Eye 2 LOB WEDGE black dot… Square Groove pre ‘90 $195.95 |
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USED RH PING EYE 2 EYE2 PLUS NO + LOB WEDGE LW RED DOT $179.99 |
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Ping Eye 2 orange dot irons with sand and wedge clubs $179.00 |
How to solve this proof?
I have to solve a proof in my PHIL class and I can’t get the answer. I was wondering if anyone could help me?
The premises given are:
1. ~(~E.~N)>T
2. G>(NvE) (conclusion) / G>T
.=dot, v=wedge, >=horseshoe, and ~=tilde
I’ve tried solving this everywhich way. Does anyone know how to solve it?
I tried using DeMorgan’s rule to get (EvN)>T. But, first, I had to have (~~Ev~~N)>T, and it wouldn’t let me use Double Negation to get rid of the ‘~~’. So, I got stuck.
Note that ~(~E.~N) is logically equivalent to (NvE) so statement
1 is equivalent to (NvE)>T, so if you have G>(NvE) then you
have (transitivity) G>T
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